Brian, You are certainly entitled to your opinion...

2012-01-06T08:16:17.507-05:00

Brian,

You are certainly entitled to your opinion, but if you look up the citations that I inserted in the post you will see that the Ramban and Rabbeinu Bachya explicitly state that it is for the reason stated in the post. In fact, the Rema in his monumental work, Toras Haolah, maintains that the reason for "mitzafon ..." is because the epitome of idol worship is the sun and it is "hidden" on the northern horizon. I does not appear that the aforementioned Rishonim saw this as a "cute vort", rather, they seem to understand that this is actually the correct etymology of the word.

"I am not 100% sure, but I feel that the answ...

2012-01-05T10:08:08.564-05:00

"I am not 100% sure, but I feel that the answer is either that since the Torah was given in the northern hemisphere it is told from that perspective, OR that the Torah would have called north darom and south tzafon to these people!!!"

You are basing that on the etymology you provided for of the word tzafon, which while a cute vort, is likely incorrect for the very reason you are using as your question.

IIRC, the Ramban has a completely different translation of the word, based on motzafon tiftach haraah.

Comments on Astro Torah: Can the Torah's South be North?

Brian, You are certainly entitled to your opinion...

"I am not 100% sure, but I feel that the answ...